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CREST CCRTM-MCLF Exam Overview:

Certification Vendor:CREST
Exam Name:CREST Certified Red Team Manager - Multiple Choice Long Form
Exam Number:CCRTM-MCLF
Related Certifications:CREST Certified Red Team Manager (CCRTM)
Exam Duration:180 minutes
Exam Format:Multiple Choice, Long Form
Exam Price:£800 + VAT
Available Languages:English
Certificate Validity Period:3 years
Recommended Training:CREST Training Provider Search
Exam Registration:Pearson VUE - CREST Exam Registration
Sample Questions:CREST CCRTM-MCLF Sample Questions
Exam Way:Pearson VUE test centres. The Multiple Choice & Long Form examination lasts 3 hours in total: 1 hour for the multiple-choice component and 2 hours for the long-form component, with an additional 15 minutes of reading time before the long-form component. The exam is closed book.
Pre Condition:No formal prerequisite exam is stated by CREST. The certification is an advanced-level qualification intended for candidates with relevant red team knowledge and experience in managing incidents, risks, penetration tests and simulated attack exercises.
Official Syllabus URL:https://www.crest-approved.org/wp-content/uploads/2025/05/CREST-Certified-Red-Team-Manager-Technical-Syllabus-v2.1.pdf

CREST CCRTM-MCLF Exam Syllabus Topics:

SectionObjectives
Legal, Ethical and Moral Aspects of Attack Management- Privacy legislation
- Additional relevant legislation or contractual information
- Data handling legislation
- Inadvertent and Collateral targeting
- Ethical testing considerations
- Computer crime/cyber abuse and misuse legislation
Planning & Scoping- Stakeholders for engagements
- Requirements Analysis (scoping)
Project Management, Governance & Oversight- Communications plans
- Incident Management Response
- Stages of a red team engagement
- Stakeholder Management & Engagement Integrity
- Roles & responsibilities of the control group
Key Concepts- Red Team Frameworks
- Red team, Purple team testing, penetration testing
- Attack Path Mapping & Attack Path Simulation
- Terminology
- Detection and Response Assessment
Rules of Engagement, Contingencies and Scenario Simulation- Contingencies / Client Facilitation
- Test plans
- Types of scenarios
- Rules of Engagements
Risk Management, Reporting and Communication- Articulating Risk
- Lexicon
- Engagement Risk Management
- Internationally Recognised Standards and Frameworks
Attack Methodology, Key Stages & Common Frameworks- Attack Methodology Frameworks
- Lateral Movement Techniques and Risks
- Privilege Escalation Techniques and Risks
- Physical access control bypasses and risks
- Cloud Environment Testing and Risks
- Persistence Techniques and Risks
- Hybrid Environment Testing and Risks
- Initial Access Techniques and Risks
Threat Intelligence- Considerations of Threat models (digital vs Physical)
- Legalities / Ethics considerations of Threat Intelligence sources
- Benefits of Active vs Passive Methodologies
- Sources of Threat Intelligence
Dropper/Implant Design, Safety and Secure Coding- Implant Droppers capabilities and risks
- Infrastructure Controls
- Implant Controls
- Secure Data Handling
- Implant Core capabilities

CREST Certified Red Team Manager - Multiple Choice Long Form Sample Questions:

Question 1

Which of the following best describes the concept of "Priority Intelligence Requirements" (PIRs) in the context of scoping a threat intelligence workstream for a red team engagement?

A. PIRs are a synonym for the final Red Team Test Report
B. PIRs are the specific, prioritised questions the threat intelligence work needs to answer to support the engagement's objectives (e.g., "which threat actors are most plausible for this organisation's sector and geography?"), helping focus collection and analysis effort effectively
C. PIRs are irrelevant to threat intelligence and belong only to military contexts
D. PIRs are set exclusively by the Red Team technical delivery team, with no analyst input


Question 2

Which of the following best describes why explicitly listing "prohibited techniques" (e.g., destructive attacks, unauthorised data exfiltration of real sensitive data) in the RoE is important, in addition to defining permitted scope?

A. Explicitly listing prohibited techniques removes ambiguity about specific high-risk activities that must never occur, even if they might otherwise seem technically "within scope," providing an additional layer of clarity and risk control
B. Prohibited techniques do not need to be listed if permitted scope has already been defined
C. Listing prohibited techniques is only relevant for engagements involving physical access
D. Prohibited techniques should only ever be communicated verbally during testing, not documented


Question 3

Not every DORA-designated financial entity is required to perform TLPT. What determines applicability?

A. Every single financial entity in the EU, regardless of size, must perform TLPT
B. Applicability is based on criteria such as systemic importance and risk profile, with competent authorities designating which entities fall in scope
C. Only entities headquartered in Frankfurt are in scope
D. TLPT applicability is decided solely by the entity itself, with no external designation


Question 4

Why is "deconfliction" with other concurrent security activities (e.g., a separate vulnerability scanning programme, or another vendor's assessment) an important RoE consideration?

A. Deconfliction is solely the client's responsibility, with no input needed from the Red Team
B. Deconfliction is only relevant to physical, not technical, engagements
C. Without deconfliction, overlapping activity could cause confusion (e.g., misattributing real vs simulated attack activity), duplicate effort, or unintended interference between different assessment activities
D. Deconfliction is unnecessary since concurrent activities never interact with each other


Question 5

Which report captures what the Blue Team observed and how it responded during the (initially blind) test, produced at Closure once the Blue Team has been briefed?

A. The Targeted Threat Intelligence Report
B. The Blue Team Report
C. The Attestation Letter
D. The Scope Specification Document


Solutions:

Question 1
Answer: B
Question 2
Answer: A
Question 3
Answer: B
Question 4
Answer: C
Question 5
Answer: B

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