CTAL_TM_001 Practice Test Questions Updated 232 Questions
ISTQB CTAL_TM_001 Dumps - Secret To Pass in First Attempt
CTAL-TM Certification Path
6 months of experience in Software development/software testing. Successful completion of the ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation level and a minimum of three years testing experience is recommended. The Intermediate Certificate may also be helpful but is not required.
NEW QUESTION # 19
You are a Test Manager at a company that develops mobile phone applications. Based on historical data in your company, you have calculated the following average metrics for system testing:
* for each 100 LOC (Lines Of Code). 4 test cases are executed
* each test case takes on average 15 minutes to execute and check
* for each 1000 LOC, 5 defects are found
You have used this information to create an estimate for the system testing of a new mobile phone application being developed to submit gas and electricity readings.
The application delivered for system testing has 50.000 lines of code. At the end of system testing, 250 defects are discovered.
Assume that:
* the system test of the new mobile phone application will require the same amount of effort as previous applications
* defect density = number of defects/1000 LOC
* no new tools or processes have been introduced to the test team
Based only on the given information, which one of the following statements is true about this new mobile phone application?
SELECT ONE OPTION
- A. The source code contains a lower defect density than the source code of past applications
- B. 3000 test cases will be executed during system testing and 250 defects will be found.
- C. The time taken to run all the estimated tests would be 750 hours.
- D. The actual number of defects found is the same as the estimated number of defects.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 20
What is the purpose of the defect management committee?
- A. To implement strict guidelines for defect report creation
- B. To control the flow of defect reports into the system
- C. To validate defect reports and determine fix plans
- D. To ensure the developers fix all defects
Answer: C
Explanation:
Purpose of the Defect Management Committee (DMC):
The DMC evaluates reported defects to confirm their validity, prioritize them, and create plans for resolution.
It ensures effective coordination between testers, developers, and stakeholders.
Evaluation of Options:
A (Controlling defect report flow) is a subset of validation but not the main purpose.
B is correct because it fully captures the committee's role.
C (Implementing strict guidelines) is procedural, not the DMC's core function.
D (Ensuring developers fix all defects) misrepresents the committee's authority.
Reference and Syllabus Alignment:
This aligns with defect lifecycle management as described in "Defect Management" (TM-2.3.1).
NEW QUESTION # 21
Which of the following can demotivate a tester? [1]
- A. Working extra hours, resulting in a successful product deployment
- B. When testing is cut short, resulting in a high number of production defects
- C. When metrics indicate weaknesses in their testing
- D. Receiving direct and honest feedback on areas to improve
Answer: B
Explanation:
This can demotivate a tester because it implies that the tester's work is not valued or respected by the management or the stakeholders. It also suggests that the tester's efforts and skills are wasted or ineffective, as the product quality is compromised and the customer satisfaction is reduced. Testing is cut short when there is insufficient time, budget, or resources allocated for testing, or when there is pressure to release the product without adequate testing. This can lead to frustration, dissatisfaction, and loss of confidence among the testers. Top 6 things that demotivate a developerHow to Demotivate Your Best Employees Reference:
Top 6 things that demotivate a developer - Amsterdam Standard
How to Demotivate Your Best Employees - HBS Working Knowledge
NEW QUESTION # 22
What would be a test approach regarding the test design techniques to be applied that would fit an item with the highest risk? 2 credits
- A. Component testing: statement testing; System testing: equivalence partitioning
- B. Component testing: decision testing; System testing: exploratory testing
- C. Component testing: decision testing; System testing: decision table testing
- D. Component testing: statement testing; System testing: decision table partitioning
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 23
The test team is using a distributed model for testing.
What is the primary factor you should consider with this model? [1]
- A. Provision of growth opportunities for the individual testers
- B. Alignment of methodologies
- C. Planned vs. actual hours
- D. Co-location of test team
Answer: B
Explanation:
A distributed model for testing is a testing model that involves testers working in different locations, time zones, or organizations, such as onshore, offshore, or nearshore1. The primary factor that you should consider with this model is the alignment of methodologies, which means that the testers follow the same or compatible testing processes, standards, tools, and techniques, regardless of their location, time zone, or organization2. The alignment of methodologies can help to ensure the consistency, quality, and efficiency of the testing activities, as well as to facilitate the communication, coordination, and collaboration among the testers3. Therefore, option A is the correct answer. Option B is incorrect because co-location of test team is not a factor that you should consider with a distributed model for testing, but rather a factor that is contrary to a distributed model for testing. Co-location of test team means that the testers work in the same physical location, which can have some advantages, such as easier communication, faster feedback, and stronger team spirit, but also some disadvantages, such as higher costs, limited resources, and less diversity4. Option C is incorrect because provision of growth opportunities for the individual testers is not a factor that you should consider with a distributed model for testing, but rather a factor that is relevant to any testing model. Provision of growth opportunities for the individual testers means that the testers are given the chance to learn new skills, gain new experiences, and advance their careers, which can have some benefits, such as increased motivation, productivity, and retention of the testers. Option D is incorrect because planned vs. actual hours is not a factor that you should consider with a distributed model for testing, but rather a factor that is relevant to any testing model. Planned vs. actual hours is a testing metric that compares the estimated and the actual effort spent on the testing activities, which can help to measure the accuracy of the test estimation, the efficiency of the test execution, and the variance of the test schedule. References: 1: ISTQB Glossary, Distributed Testing 2: Distributed Testing - Software Testing Fundamentals 3: ISTQB Advanced Level Test Manager Syllabus, Section 3.2.1 4: Co-located vs. Distributed Teams: What's the Difference? : How to Provide Growth Opportunities for Employees : Software Testing Metrics: What is, Types & Example
NEW QUESTION # 24
Which of the following is an advantage of specifying test conditions at a detailed level? [1]
- A. Saves time
- B. Improves maintainability and reduces ownership costs for the testware
- C. Can be used to identify test coverage gaps
- D. Can be used to leverage use cases for acceptance testing
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Can be used to identify test coverage gaps. This is because test conditions are the items or events of a component or system that will be verified by one or more test cases. Specifying test conditions at a detailed level can help to identify test coverage gaps, which are the areas or aspects of the component or system that are not covered by the test conditions or test cases. By identifying test coverage gaps, the test team can ensure that the testing is complete and consistent with the test objectives and scope. Test Conditions - ISTQB not-for-profit association References: Certified Tester Advanced Level Test Manager (CTAL-TM) - ISTQB not-for-profit association, ISTQB Test Manager Certification - ISTQB Exams Worldwide - ISTQB Official Registration, Test Conditions - ISTQB not-for-profit association
NEW QUESTION # 25
What is the main reason why reviews are especially beneficial in the above-mentioned scenario? 2 credits
- A. They find defects early.
- B. They can be performed without exercising the code.
- C. They ensure a common understanding of the product.
- D. They enhance project communication.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 26
You are Test Manager for a project which is in the Test Implementation stage for the first planned iteration, creation of the initial Test Cases and required test data is progressing well.
The Test Strategy documents the Stakeholders view that small teams should collaborate together to create and test functionality which is to be released in iterations, with each release building on the success of the last.
Stakeholders are willing to accept the risks of a partly working system in the early stages. Delivery of working functionality (particularly around interfaces to third party systems and performance of back end databases) is the priority for the early releases.
Which of the following test types would you select for this first planned iteration, in order to meet Stakeholders expectations?
a) Usability testing
b) Structural testing
c) Functional testing of process flows
d) Performance testing
e) Business process testing
f) Component integration testing
You are Test Manager for a project which is in the Test Implementation stage for the first planned iteration, creation of the initial Test Cases and required test data is progressing well.
The Test Strategy documents the Stakeholders view that small teams should collaborate together to create and test functionality which is to be released in iterations, with each release building on the success of the last.
Stakeholders are willing to accept the risks of a partly working system in the early stages. Delivery of working functionality (particularly around interfaces to third party systems and performance of back end databases) is the priority for the early releases.
Which of the following test types would you select for this first planned iteration, in order to meet Stakeholders expectations?
a) Usability testing
b) Structural testing
c) Functional testing of process flows
d) Performance testing
e) Business process testing
f) Component integration testing
- A. b, c, d and f.
- B. b, d, e and f.
- C. a. b, d and f.
- D. a, c, d and e.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 27
Which of the following is least likely to be used as a technique to identify project and product risks? 1 credit
- A. Expert interviews
- B. Brainstorming
- C. Inspections
- D. Independent assessments
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 28
Most managers in your company consider the efforts of your test team valuable, while others see comprehensive testing as an unnecessary cost overhead to the SDLC.
What action could the Test Manager take to quantify the value of testing to the organization? [3]
- A. Develop metrics that illustrate planned and actual testing hours.
- B. Determine the cost of external failures.
- C. Demonstrate the role QA has in similar size organizations.
- D. Review the Test Plan with the management team.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Determining the cost of external failures involves analyzing the impact of defects that escape into production. This includes the direct costs associated with fixing the defects, as well as the indirect costs such as customer dissatisfaction, damage to the company's reputation, and potential loss of business. By quantifying these costs, the Test Manager can illustrate the financial benefits of comprehensive testing in preventing high-cost external failures, thereby demonstrating its value as an investment rather than a cost overhead.
Reference:
The ISTQB Advanced Level Test Manager documents provide guidelines on how to establish and use metrics to measure the effectiveness and efficiency of the testing process, including the cost of quality and the Return on Investment (ROI) for testing activities. These references support the rationale behind choosing option C as the verified answer.
NEW QUESTION # 29
You are a newly appointed Test Manager in an organisation that has no separate test team, no formal testing process and testing is considered to be, at best, ad-hoc in approach. The IT director is keen to introduce improvement across all areas of the organisation, not just testing. This is so that the current level of maturity can be assessed and roadmaps outlined for improving processes in a staged way. He has asked you to recommend a test process improvement model and you have suggested TMMi.
Which ONE of the following is a valid reason for your recommendation? SELECT ONE OPTION
- A. It helps address highest priority testing issues with limited formality.
- B. It provides the fastest way to take testing to an optimized state.
- C. It naturally complements the IT director's process improvement goals for the organisation.
- D. It provides bench-marking against industry averages using objective measurements.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 30
Your current project is delivering a warehouse management system for use in distribution centres, you are writing a test plan to address acceptance testing. You need to determine which stakeholders would be interested in receiving regular reports covering the progress of test execution against agreed schedule and budget. Which roles would be MOST interested in these reports?
- A. Project manager
- B. Business owner
- C. Operations manager
- D. Lead developer
- E. System users
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
Acceptance testing progress against schedule and budget is a key interest for business stakeholders such as operations, business owner, and the project manager.
"Business stakeholders, such as business owners, project managers and operations managers, are usually interested in summary test progress and conformance to agreed acceptance criteria and schedule." (Source: ISTQB Advanced Level Test Manager Syllabus 2012, Section 1.4.2) Therefore,B, C and Eis the correct option.
NEW QUESTION # 31
You feel that your team has become lazy when applying good software testing techniques You have given each of them a challenge to take a different business rule and build a full decision tableand then collapse that table You will then assess the results For this assessment, what competencies are you validating?
- A. Methodical and personal
- B. Professional and social
- C. Professional and methodical
- D. Social and personal
Answer: C
Explanation:
* Competence Assessment:
* Professional competenceis validated by understanding and applying testing techniques to create a decision table.
* Methodical competenceis validated by systematically collapsing the decision table to ensure efficient test case design.
* Evaluation of Options:
* BandCinvolve social and personal skills, which are unrelated to the task.
* Dmisses the professional aspect of understanding business rules.
* Ais correct because the challenge tests both professional knowledge and methodical skills.
References and Syllabus Alignment:
* Decision table techniques and testing competencies are emphasized in "Test Techniques" (TM-1.4.1) and "Test Team Skills" (TM-3.1.1).
NEW QUESTION # 32
What is the purpose of process improvement assessment models? [1]
- A. Assist in the hiring of new testers
- B. Ensure a consistent approach is used
- C. Model the failure modes of the product
- D. Identify the test tools needed for testing
Answer: B
Explanation:
Process improvement assessment models are designed to ensure a consistent approach is used in evaluating and improving processes within an organization. They provide a structured framework for assessing the current state of processes, identifying areas for improvement, and implementing changes in a systematic manner.
NEW QUESTION # 33
During what step of the Fundamental Test Process should you define the methods to be used to collect test metrics? [1]
- A. Execution
- B. Analysis
- C. Planning
- D. Closure
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Planning. This is because test metrics are quantitative measures that are used to monitor and control the test process, and to evaluate the test results and quality. Test metrics should be defined during the planning step of the Fundamental Test Process, which is the activity of establishing the test objectives, scope, approach, resources, schedule, and deliverables. By defining the methods to be used to collect test metrics during the planning step, the test team can ensure that the test metrics are aligned with the test plan and the project goals, and that the data collection process is consistent and efficient. Test Metrics - ISTQB not-for-profit association References: Certified Tester Advanced Level Test Manager (CTAL-TM) - ISTQB not-for-profit association, ISTQB Test Manager Certification - ISTQB Exams Worldwide - ISTQB Official Registration, Test Metrics - ISTQB not-for-profit association
NEW QUESTION # 34
Your defect opened trend is converging to the closed trend but there is still a gap. What does that gap represent?
- A. Defects that have resulted from regressions
- B. Defects fixed but not yet closed
- C. Defects that are projected but have not been found yet
- D. Defects that will be introduced to production
Answer: B
Explanation:
Understanding the Defect Trend Gap:
A gap between "defects opened" and "defects closed" usually indicates defects that have been resolved (fixed) but are pending formal closure, often awaiting retesting or approval.
The trend convergence suggests the defect management process is effective, but some defects are still in the verification stage.
Evaluation of Options:
A is incorrect: The gap does not indicate projected but unfound defects.
C is incorrect: Regression defects would cause a divergence, not convergence, in trends.
D is incorrect: Defects introduced to production are unrelated to the convergence.
B is correct as it aligns with the standard defect lifecycle.
Reference and Syllabus Alignment:
This aligns with "Defect Management" in the ISTQB syllabus, emphasizing defect lifecycle tracking (TM-2.3.1).
NEW QUESTION # 35
Which of the Mowing should be used to understand the context of testing within an organization?
- A. The organizational test strategy
- B. Stakeholder organization chart
- C. The budget
- D. The schedule
Answer: A
Explanation:
* Context Analysis:
* The test strategy defines thContext Analysis:
* Monitoring code coverage is inherently tied to knowledge of the internal structure of the software, a characteristic of white-box testing.
* Evaluation of Options:
* A. Black-box:
* Incorrect. Black-box testing focuses on functionality without knowledge of internal structures.
* B. White-box:
* Correct. White-box testing uses internal code knowledge to determine areas that need more coverage.
* C. Functional:
* Incorrect. Functional testing assesses functionality without inspecting internal code.
* D. Non-functional:
* Incorrect. Non-functional testing focuses on performance, usability, etc., not code coverage.
* Syllabus Alignment:
* ISTQB associates code coverage monitoring with white-box testing techniques (TM-1.2.6).
References:
ISTQB Advanced Level Test Management Syllabus (TM-1.2.6)
approach, resources, and processes for testing within an organization.It provides insight into the testing context.
Evaluation of Options:
A: The organizational test strategy:
Correct. It offers a comprehensive understanding of the organization's testing framework.
B: Stakeholder organization chart:
Incorrect. Useful for identifying roles but does not provide a testing context.
C: The schedule:
Incorrect. Reflects timelines but not testing approaches or resources.
D: The budget:
Incorrect. Indicates financial constraints but not the testing context.
Syllabus Alignment:
ISTQB emphasizes using the organizational test strategy to understand the testing context (TM-1.4.1).
References:
ISTQB Advanced Level Test Management Syllabus (TM-1.4.1)
NEW QUESTION # 36
SoftTech provides a core banking product to retail banks to enable their customers to process payments via the Internet and telephone banking and. as SoftTech's Test Manager, you are responsible for system testing and system integration testing of all SoftTech's products.
Your current project is to integrate SoftTech's core banking product with an existing bank's systems, which are maintained by experienced developers but poorly documented.
A specification for the 10 interfaces to the bank's existing systems has been produced by SoftTech's development team. There is an estimating matrix for system integration testing that allows 2 man days per interface for preparation, plus 2 man days per interface for test execution. The exit criteria for the completion of system integration testing has been agreed as:
1. No open Severity 1 defects
2. No more than 10 open severity 2 and/or 3 defects
3. All interfaces tested
4. Cost estimate must not be exceeded
System integration test execution is scheduled to last 5 weeks, with week 5 reserved for regression and bug fixing only. At the end of week 3 the following test report has been produced (figures on a week by week basis, not cumulative):
b. Open severity 2 and 3 defects
c. Interface testing progress
d. Development resource for debugging
e. Available budget
SELECT ONE OPTION
- A. d and e.
- B. c and d.
- C. c and e
- D. b and c.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 37
At what testing level do the test management activities Include coordinating with end users7
- A. Component testing
- B. System testing
- C. Component Integration testing
- D. Acceptance testing
Answer: D
Explanation:
End User Involvement in Testing Levels:
Acceptance testing involves validating the product with the end users to ensure it meets their needs and requirements.
It typically requires close coordination with end users for User Acceptance Testing (UAT).
Evaluation of Options:
A (Component testing) and B (Component Integration testing) do not involve end users, as these are technical-level testing activities.
C (System testing) focuses on the integrated system but does not require end-user participation.
D is correct because acceptance testing involves direct collaboration with end users.
Reference and Syllabus Alignment:
Covered under "Test Levels and Objectives" in the ISTQB syllabus (TM-1.2.5).
NEW QUESTION # 38
You are a new lest manager in an organization You have been asked to assess the defect process to determine if there are any efficiency improvements that could be made that would reduce the cost of quality You have started digging through the defect Information What information would be most helpful for this investigation?
- A. Areas of the software producing the most defects
- B. The phase in which a defect was introduced versus the phase in which it was found
- C. Risk areas m which defects have been detected and the relationship between the risk rating of the software and the seventy of the defect
- D. Defect priorities and seventies as related to time from reporting to closure
Answer: B
Explanation:
Key Data for Defect Process Improvement:
Analyzing when defects are introduced versus when they are detected is critical to identifying process inefficiencies.
This information helps pinpoint gaps in earlier phases, allowing the team to implement preventive measures and reduce overall costs.
Evaluation of Options:
A and B are useful but do not address the root cause of inefficiencies.
C (Risk areas and severity relationship) is helpful but secondary to understanding phase discrepancies.
D is correct as it provides the most actionable insights for process improvement.
Reference and Syllabus Alignment:
Defect lifecycle analysis is discussed under "Defect Management" (TM-2.3.1) in the ISTQB syllabus.
NEW QUESTION # 39
Referring to SCENARIO 2 It has been agreed that Project 1 will be delivered using an Agile approach, with user stories delivered across three sprints, each lasting 4 weeks. The programme manager is concerned about RISK 3 and wants the Master Test Plan to specify an effective test process improvement approach.
Which of the following is the best test process improvement approach for Project 1 ? SELECT ONE OPTION
- A. A CTP assessment should be run after each sprint to identify critical test processes that need improving.
- B. A TMMi assessment should be run at the end of each sprint to identify improvements for the next sprint.
- C. Test process improvement is not possible for this project as the Agile approach does not allow time to make improvements.
- D. Short post-sprint review sessions should be conducted to identify areas of improvement for the next sprint.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 40
Which of the following statements is true regarding documentation standards? [2]
- A. Documentation standards are determined by the Project Manager.
- B. Documentation standards are a lower priority than testing standards.
- C. Agile projects consistently use level test plans and documentation standards.
- D. Documentation standards can vary depending on the test level.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Documentation standards are not uniform across all test levels; they can differ based on the specific requirements of each level. For instance, unit testing may have different documentation needs compared to system testing. The ISTQB documentation standards recognize this variability and allow for flexibility to suit the context of the test level. This ensures that the documentation is appropriate for the objectives and constraints of each test level, providing clarity and efficiency in the testing process.
References: The ISTQB Advanced Level Test Manager syllabus and the ISTQB Glossary provide detailed information on documentation standards and their application across different test levels. These resources are essential for understanding the principles and practices of effective test documentation in various testing scenarios.
NEW QUESTION # 41
You have assembled the following cost of quality numbers 200 defects were found prior to release and 100 were found after.
Given this information what is the total cost of quality for this project?
- A. $200,000
- B. $100,000
- C. $10 000
- D. $300,000
Answer: D
Explanation:
Step by Step Comprehensive Detailed Explanation:
* Definition of Cost of Quality (CoQ):CoQ is composed of four components:
* Prevention Costs:Costs related to activities to prevent defects (e.g., training, quality planning).
* Appraisal Costs:Costs associated with evaluating products to ensure defect-free delivery (e.g., testing).
* Internal Failure Costs:Costs due to defects found before delivery to the customer (e.g., rework).
* External Failure Costs:Costs from defects discovered after delivery (e.g., warranty claims, reputation damage).
* Calculation Process:
* Defect Prevention Cost:Given as $10,000 (fixed).
* Appraisal Cost:$250 per defect for 200 defects = 250×200=50,000250 \times 200 = 50,000250
×200=50,000.
* Internal Failure Cost:$200 per defect for 200 defects = 200×200=40,000200 \times 200 =
40,000200×200=40,000.
* External Failure Cost:$2,000 per defect for 100 defects = 2,000×100=200,0002,000 \times 100
= 200,0002,000×100=200,000.
* Total CoQ:Adding all costs together:
Total CoQ=10,000+50,000+40,000+200,000=300,000.\text{Total CoQ} = 10,000 + 50,000 + 40,000 +
200,000 = 300,000.Total CoQ=10,000+50,000+40,000+200,000=300,000.
* Correct Answer and Justification:The total cost is$300,000, making Option A the correct answer.
References and Documentation from Advanced Test Management:
* ISTQB Advanced Test Management Syllabus v3.0, Section 2.2.2:This section emphasizes understanding and calculating the cost of quality by segregating it into the four components as seen above.
* ATM Sample Exam Questions 2024 (Example Calculations):Highlights similar numerical examples to calculate CoQ.
* ISTQB Exam Structure Rules v1.9:Ensures alignment with K2-level understanding for cost analysis scenarios in test management.
NEW QUESTION # 42
You are managing the test team that is testing a new mobile application that provides a "step-by-step' hiking guide Your risk assessment resulted in the following table:
Your team has clone the depth and breadth testing for the GPS accuracy and usability features but when the product was given to beta testers there were some issues Despite the users reporting the app was easy to use at least one user walked off the edge of a cliff and another one ended up in a river. Your team has confirmed that the functionality is working correctly. and the GPS information is accurate.
What other area of testing should you now prioritize?
- A. Security
- B. Functionality
- C. Performance
- D. Usability
Answer: D
Explanation:
Analysis of the Situation:
The GPS accuracy and functionality have been confirmed to work correctly as per depth and breadth testing.
Despite this, users experienced severe issues such as walking off a cliff or into a river. These incidents point to usability problems related to user interpretation of the GPS data and system feedback.
Testing Prioritization:
Usability testing evaluates how effectively and safely users interact with the application. Here, it should focus on improving user guidance, error prevention, and alerts.
Functionality and Performance are not the problem since they passed testing.
Security is unrelated to the specific reported issues.
Reference and Syllabus Alignment:
This aligns with usability-focused risk mitigation strategies in the ISTQB Advanced Test Management syllabus under "Test Process" and "Test Techniques" (TM-1.3.4).
NEW QUESTION # 43
Which statement about defining process improvement actions using defect report information is TRUE?
- A. Information about defect root causes can be used to enable refactoring of troublesome components
- B. Information about defect location can be used to assess the effectiveness of test processes at finding defects
- C. Information about the phase of introduction of defects can identify the lifecycle stages in which most defects are created
- D. Information about duplicate and rejected defect reports can be used to assess the quality of debugging and fixing the defects
Answer: C
Explanation:
Understandingwhendefects are introduced supports process improvement at thecorrect lifecycle stage, such as improving requirements reviews or design practices.
"The analysis of when defects were introduced in the development lifecycle helps to identify weak points and improve development or test processes."
-ISTQB CTFL Syllabus 2018, Section 5.6
Thus,Option Bis the best answer for guiding improvement.
NEW QUESTION # 44
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