Pass AACN PCCN Exam Info and Free Practice Test
New 2023 Latest Questions PCCN Dumps - Use Updated AACN Exam
Obtaining the PCCN certification demonstrates a nurse’s commitment to professional development and the advancement of their nursing career. Progressive Care Certified Nursing certification also enhances a nurse’s credibility and increases their marketability to employers. Nurses who hold the PCCN certification are recognized as experts in their field and are often sought out by healthcare organizations for leadership and management positions.
AACN PCCN Certification Exam is a nationally recognized certification for nurses who work in progressive care units. Nurses who obtain certification demonstrate their commitment to their profession and their patients, as well as their knowledge and skills in providing care to acutely ill patients. PCCN exam requires a significant amount of preparation, but the AACN offers a variety of resources to help nurses study and prepare. Obtaining certification is a significant achievement for nurses and can lead to professional growth and development opportunities.
NEW QUESTION # 198
A physician has ordered cardiac catheterization for a patient in the progressive care unit. After explaining the procedure, the patient, who is alert, oriented, and competent to make decisions is refusing to give informed consent.
The nurse's role is to:
- A. Respect and support the patient's decision
- B. Threaten to call the physician
- C. Try to get the patient to change his mind by providing more information
- D. Have the consent signed by the patient's spouse, since she has power of attorney
Answer: A
Explanation:
Correct answer: Respect and support the patient's decision
The nurse must respect the competent patient's choice and support the patient's decisions even if the decision is contrary to the judgments of the health care team.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 195, 198.
NEW QUESTION # 199
Which of the following types of infarction is notorious for causing conduction malfunctions?
- A. Anterior MI
- B. Inferior MI
- C. Posterior MI
- D. Anterolateral MI
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation: Inferior MI is notorious for causing conduction malfunctions. Myocardial infarction (MI) due to coronary artery disease is a leading cause of death in the United States, where more than 1 million people have acute myocardial infarctions (AMIs) each year. Complications of MI include arrhythmic, mechanical, inflammatory (early pericarditis and post-MI syndrome) sequelae, as well as left ventricular mural thrombus (LVMT). In addition to these broad categories, right ventricular (RV) infarction and cardiogenic shock are other possible complications of acute MI.
NEW QUESTION # 200
Examples of communication barriers that may impact a patient or their family's ability to learn include all of the following except:
- A. The use of teach-back
- B. Family anxiety
- C. Patient stability
- D. Environmental factors
Answer: A
Explanation:
Correct answer: The use of teach-back
Teach-back is a way to help ensure the patient and/or family members understand the information provided. The method involves asking the learners to repeat back to the nurse, in their own words, what they need to do or know.
Multiple barriers such as environmental factors, patient or family anxiety, or patient stability make providing education in the progressive care unit challenging; it is most often done informally and carried out on an on-going basis.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 27.
NEW QUESTION # 201
Hydroxyurea is a medication sometimes prescribed to help prevent complications due to:
- A. Myasthenia gravis
- B. Acute renal failure
- C. Chronic renal failure
- D. Sickle cell disease
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: Sickle cell disease
Hydroxyurea is a medication sometimes prescribed to help prevent complications due to sickle cell disease.
Hydroxyurea (brand names Hydrea and Droxia) is an antineoplastic drug used to treat numerous diseases, including sickle cell disease. Complications of sickle cell disease include hemolytic anemia, blood vessel occlusion, ischemic pain in organs and tissues, bone disorders, injury to the spleen, and stroke.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 327.
NEW QUESTION # 202
All of the following drugs are used for the treatment of asthma except:
- A. Beta adreneregic agonists
- B. Antibiotics
- C. Corticosteroids
- D. Anti-cholinergic drugs
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation: All of the following drugs are used for the treatment of asthma except antibiotics. Severe acute attack of asthma does not respond to conventional therapy. Different pharmacological agents are in practice to control the symptoms of asthma, some that are long acting to prevent attacks and others that are short acting. Antibiotics have no role in treating Asthma because there is no infective cause in Asthma.
NEW QUESTION # 203
Elements that serve as a foundation for addressing ethical problems include:
- A. Institutional policies, insurance regulations, and government directives
- B. Patient preferences, professional standards, and community mores
- C. Professional codes and standards, institutional policies, and ethical principles
- D. Ethical principles, community standards, and institutional policies
Answer: C
Explanation:
Correct answer: Professional codes and standards, institutional policies, and ethical principles These elements serve as a foundation for addressing ethical problems. Elements such as community mores, insurance regulations, and government directives do not provide foundational support for addressing the problem of ethical decision-making.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 191.
NEW QUESTION # 204
The most common cause of dilated cardiomyopathy is:
- A. Infection
- B. Coronary artery disease
- C. Myocardial fibrosis
- D. Aortic stenosis
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct answer: Coronary artery disease
Coronary artery disease is the most common cause of dilated cardiomyopathy.
Aortic stenosis is a cause of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, and myocardial fibrosis can cause restrictive cardiomyopathy. While viral, bacterial, or fungal infections can cause dilated cardiomyopathy, infection is not the most common cause.
Reference:
Bu
rns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 467-468.
NEW QUESTION # 205
A 30-year-old man presented to medical OPD with complaints of polyuria and polydipsia of short duration. Patient is also obese. Blood glucose levels are high. What is the likely diagnosis?
- A. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
- B. Diabetes insipidus
- C. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
- D. None of the above
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation: The likely diagnosis for this patient is Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus because it usually occurs in an individual under age 40 who is overweight and has blood glucose levels that are high. There is also a short history of polyuria and polydipsia.
NEW QUESTION # 206
A patient presented to medical emergency with hyperglycemia. If we want to lower the blood sugar levels immediately, which type of insulin will we prefer?
- A. Humalog (lispro H)
- B. NPH
- C. Ultralente
- D. Regular
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation: In order to lower blood levels immediately, humalog (lispro H) is preferred because it is a fast acting, short duration insulin that acts within 5 to 15 minutes, peaking between 45to 90 minutes and lasting 3 to 4 hours.
NEW QUESTION # 207
Of the following spinal cord injury syndromes, which describes injury to the central gray matter with preservation of the outer white matter?
- A. Central cord syndrome
- B. Anterior cord syndrome
- C. Posterior cord syndrome
- D. Brown-Sequard syndrome
Answer: A
Explanation:
Correct answer: Central cord syndrome
Central cord syndrome is an incomplete spinal cord injury syndrome in which the central gray matter of the cord is affected with preservation of the outer white matter. In this syndrome, weakness/paralysis, as well as sensory loss, is greater in the upper extremities is greater than in the lower extremities.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 507.
NEW QUESTION # 208
The management of patients with acute exacerbation of hypertension focuses on three primary goals.
Which of the following is not included in these primary objectives?
- A. Preparation and planning for continuous and consistent outpatient follow up
- B. Evaluation and treatment of target organ damage
- C. Maintenance of cerebral perfusion pressure
- D. Reduction of arterial pressure
Answer: C
Explanation:
Correct answer: Maintenance of cerebral perfusion pressure
Maintenance of cerebral perfusion pressure is imperative during treatment of acute, severe hypertensive crises and overly aggressive pharmacological management may lead to cerebrovascular compromise related to a rapid drop in systemic arterial pressure. However, this is not one of the three primary objectives of management for the patient with acute exacerbation of hypertension.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 240-241.
NEW QUESTION # 209
What is the last step followed in Evidence Based Guidelines?
- A. Review
- B. Focus on the topic
- C. Policy considerations
- D. Expert judgment
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation: "Review" is the last step followed in Evidence Based Guidelines. Different steps to evidence based practice guidelines are, Focus on the topic, Evidence review, Expert judgment, Policy considerations, Policy and review.
NEW QUESTION # 210
A young girl presented in medical OPD with 3 days history of intermittent fever with rigors and chills, hemoptysis, pleuritic chest pain and nausea. On examination, she was ill looking, had fever of 101 degrees Fahrenheit, her chest was dull on percussion and there was a pleural rub. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Asthma
- B. Pneumonia
- C. Pulmonary tuberculosis
- D. COPD
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation: The most likely diagnosis with the history of fever, chills, pleuralistic chest pain and nausea, is Pneumonia because it is an infectious disease presenting with fever. When lung parenchyma is damaged, hemoptysis also occurs. Moreover, pleural rub also indicates Pneumonia.
NEW QUESTION # 211
Aortic dissections are classified as acute if they have occurred:
- A. Less than 6 weeks since the onset of symptoms
- B. Less than 2 months since the onset of symptoms
- C. Less than 2 weeks since the onset of symptoms
- D. Less than 4 weeks since the onset of symptoms
Answer: C
Explanation:
Correct answer: Less than 2 weeks since the onset of symptoms
Patients seldom demonstrate early signs of an aortic aneurysm. The diagnosis is often made during a chest x-ray or a routine physical examination. Dissections are classified as acute if they have occurred less than two weeks since the onset of symptoms and chronic if they occurred more than two weeks since the onset of symptoms.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 481.
NEW QUESTION # 212
Which of the following factors is most likely to contribute to hypernatremia in the mechanically ventilated patient?
- A. Humidification of inspired gases
- B. Hyponatremia, rather than hypernatremia is a common occurrence following the initiation of mechanical ventilation
- C. Applied PEEP
- D. Decreased levels of circulating antidiuretic hormone
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct answer: Hyponatremia, rather than hypernatremia is a common occurrence following the initiation of mechanical ventilation Hyponatremia, rather than hypernatremia, commonly develops following the initiation of mechanical ventilation and can be related to many factors including:
* Applied PEEP
* Humidification of inspired gases
* Hypotonic fluid administration
* Diuretics
* Increased levels of circulating antidiuretic hormone
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 123
NEW QUESTION # 213
Optimal cellular functioning occurs when the pH of the blood is:
- A. Between 7.25 and 7.35
- B. Between 7.35 and 7.45
- C. Between 7.55 and 7.60
- D. Between 7.45 and 7.55
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct answer: Between 7.35 and 7.45
Optimal cellular functioning occurs when the pH of the blood is between 7.35 and 7.45. Decreases in pH below 7.35 are termed acidemia and increases in pH above 7.45 are termed alkalemia.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 101.
NEW QUESTION # 214
......
The PCCN certification exam is a rigorous assessment that evaluates a nurse's ability to apply critical thinking, clinical judgment, and evidence-based practice in progressive care settings. PCCN exam consists of 125 multiple-choice questions and takes approximately three hours to complete. The questions cover a broad range of topics, including cardiovascular, pulmonary, neurology, gastrointestinal, endocrine, hematology, and multisystem problems. The PCCN exam is also designed to evaluate a nurse's ability to provide patient and family-centered care, collaborate with interdisciplinary teams, and incorporate ethical and legal principles into their practice.
Latest PCCN Exam Dumps AACN Exam: https://freecert.test4sure.com/PCCN-exam-materials.html